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Question 2.3.10

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TZ
leumasicOfficial

7 months ago

(a) False. Consider the sequences

an=bn=(0,1,0,1,).a_{n} = b_{n} = (0, 1, 0, 1, \dots).

Clearly the sequence (anbn)( a_{n} - b_{n} ) converges to 0 (why). However, neither of the sequences converge.

(b) True. By definition, for every ϵ>0\epsilon > 0,

NN,nN,nN    bnb<ϵ.\exists N \in \mathbb{N}, \forall n \in \mathbb{N}, \quad n \geq N \implies \abs{b_{n} - b} < \epsilon.

However, by using the reverse triangle inequality, we also have

nN    bnbbnb<ϵ.n \geq N \implies \abs{\abs{b_{n}} - \abs{b}} \leq \abs{b_{n} - b} < \epsilon.

(c) True. Suppose

an0,cn=(bnan)0.a_{n} \rightarrow 0, \quad c_{n} = (b_{n} - a_{n}) \rightarrow 0.

Apply rule (ii) of the algebraic limit theorem to the limit

lim(an+cn)=liman+limcn=0+0=0.\lim (a_{n} + c_{n}) = \lim a_{n} + \lim c_{n} = 0 + 0 = 0.

This then implies that limbn=0\lim b_{n} = 0 since

lim(an+cn)=liman+bnan=limbn.\lim (a_{n} + c_{n}) = \lim a_{n} + b_{n} - a_{n} = \lim b_{n}.

(d) True. Since

nN,bnban,\forall n \in \mathbb{N}, \quad \abs{b_{n} - b} \leq a_{n},

every term of the sequence ana_{n} is positive. Therefore, by definition, for any ϵ>0\epsilon > 0,

NN,nN,nN    bnban=an<ϵ.\exists N \in \mathbb{N}, \forall n \in \mathbb{N}, \quad n \geq N \implies \abs{b_{n} - b} \leq a_{n} = \abs{a_{n}} < \epsilon.

Therefore, bnb_{n} converges to bb.

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